Harmony help
Hey there! I have a 4 part harmony for men (Tenor 1,2 Baritone and Bass), and since I only have 2 more people, I tried to make it 3 part. As I learned, it's not good to just take the bass part out and only leave tenor 1 2 and baritone as they are, so I tried to change the lines a bit. I want to ask if the harmony is good, and if not, please tell me where and how can I make it better. Also, please be kind because I am just a beginner trying to improve. Thank you!
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Comments
It's probably fine like it is. I might consider this:
In the original 4 part piece, so many parallel 3rds were not a problem. But now there are many places where there are only two notes of a chord. One is doubled down an octave, or a unison. In three part, I suspect you need to have as many notes of a chord as possible. Almost all the time. Use two notes for a special effect like leading up to (but not including) a cadence.
Just a thought.
In reply to It's probably fine like it… by bobjp
Thank you for your answer! So I can use chords in any inversion in the 3 part harmony? In this case I can just remove the bass from the original 4 part harmony.
In reply to Thank you for your answer!… by biholarsami31
That isn't what I meant. I don't think of the bass being the root of the chord any more than the top voice being the fifth all the time. It just depends on the effect you want. Inversions have their place, Yes, I know there are rules about these things. To me the rules are guidelines. They are the way things have always been done. And composers have always done what they think is needed. Rules or not.
In reply to That isn't what I meant. I… by bobjp
That's what I am talking about, what and which are these rules? I tried this with another piece, but when I asked a composer from my city he told me that it's not good, because you don't know anymore which is the tonic and stuff like this.
In reply to That's what I am talking… by biholarsami31
To be clear, for that piece I just removed the bass part, what can be wrong if you do that?
In reply to Thank you for your answer!… by biholarsami31
Certainly you can use chords in any inversion. This does not necessarily equate to simply removing the bass.
In reply to Certainly you can use chords… by TheHutch
Thank you! I will try.
In reply to Certainly you can use chords… by TheHutch
As a rule of thumb, the root and third of triads are most important and either can be used fairly freely (voice leading permitting) as the bass note. The 5th is the least important note of the triad and can be omitted if necessary (to avoid parallel fifths, for example). The 5th can be used as the bass note but needs to be used with care. In the V7 chord in a major key, the third and 7th are essential to give the unstable diminished 5th (e.g. in F maj, E to Bb) that resolves to a major third (F to A); root or 5th can be omitted. But such rules of thumb can always be broken if the result sounds as you want it to sound.
I suspect that any moment now, someone will mention Gould's book on notation.
It's easy to get buried in trying to follow the rules. You've got a nice piece there. Do what you have in your heart.
In reply to I suspect that any moment… by bobjp
Thank you all for making these things clear for me. Your help is greatly appreciated!