Circle of fifths: reflections
I hope no one minds me asking another non software-related question.
I am still trying to understand musical reflections and how they work. I have come across a page that says:
"If you look at the circle of fifths, you'll discover that mirroring something will make it go into the key across from it on the circle: C stays the same. F = G; Bb = D; Eb = A; Ab = E; Db = B; F#/Gb are identical. "
http://traevoli.com/symmetry.php
I cannot find any other pages stating this rule, which strikes me as odd if it is universal. There is an awful lot being said about other ways the circle affects music, but no one else seems to mention anything about the law of reflection.
So I'm wondering: is the above statement a law of music that applies to ALL compositions, or does it only apply to the compositions of the person who wrote that page, and is based on their observations of their own music only? Have they got it wrong?
Thank you
Posercom xx
Comments
As far as I can tell, what he is calling "reflections" is really a form of what might otherwise be called an "inversion". It's a very quirky and confusing way of looking at what is actually a very simple topic, and his way of looking at it is not by any means something most people would ever have occasion to do - but sure, the way he has defined it, his statements will always be true. He has defined "mirroring" such that it's kind of like a substitution cipher (code), where each note you read gets played as some other note. The way he has defined "mirroring", any time you read G you are supposed to play F, any time you read E you are supposed to play C, and so on according to the rule he gives. Why anyone would want to do that is completely beyond me. But if you, sure, if for some reason you tried it, it's going to have the effect he says it will. Since all white keys becomes other keys and all black keys become other black keys in his system, then mirroring all results in the same number of white keys and black keys being played as the original.
What he describes can hardly be called a law of music, though, since music doesn't normally reading notes in this strange "mirrored" fashion. It's more a "law" of what happens if you for whatever reason decide to try reading the particularly strange way he is discussing. And sure enough, if you were to read everything mirrored, G would become F just as surely if you were reading his piece as if you were reading Mozart. But again, no one but him would ever be likely to do that in the first place. Which is why you won't find other pages discussing this - most people don't perform these sort of operations, so they don't sit around wondering what would happen if they did and then write up the results. It's an idle curiosity, nothing more.
Dear Marc,
Thank you for answering me, as ever! It's not idle curiosity on my part; I am very interested to understand how reflection works.
Several composers have been known to produce tunes that play the same back to front. As I understand it, they do this by composing a prime and then generating its retrograde and putting the two next to one another. Is the law of key signature reflections preventing them from also including the inversions in that sequence?
It's the chords I was talking about, not the notes. Perhaps I misinterpreted it but I think the circle of fifths refers to keys, not notes - or is it both? Anyway, since the retrograde is just the melody back to front, it would presumably contain the same chords. So the composers thought: "right, I can just stick R after P, and it will all blend in nicely and the chords will sound fine even if the melody sounds rather jerky and strange, but at least my tune plays the same both ways." But when it comes to the inversions, if the principle of G changing to B flat etc is correct, the chord reflections would clash with the prime and the retrograde, so the prime, retrograde, inversion, and retrograde inversion could not be included within the same piece. They're in different keys; keys that do not go well together. The prime and the retrograde combine well, and the two inversions each combine well, but all four do not.
Is that correct?
In reply to Dear Marc,Thank you for by Resopmoc
Again, the particular way the author of that site chose to do his inversions does indeed introduce all sorts of notes that come from a different key. But that doesn't mean all inversions do.
For one thing, you can do a diatonic inversion - keeping the basic size of the interval (third, fifth, etc) but not worrying about whether it is a major or minor third, perfect or diminished fifth, etc. That can keep a melody in the same key. Also, while the site referenced performed its inversions around D and Ab because that happened to yield a nice visual symmetry on the piano, you can perform inversions on whatever axis you want.
For instance, if you're in the key of Bb and perform your inversion around C (or Gb), then all diatonic notes remain diatonic, and all non-diatonic notes remain diatonic but shifted in a musically useful way. The key of Bb has two flats: Bb and Eb. The two most useful chromatic alterations you'd add would be E (backing out the most recently added flat) and Ab (adding the next flat in line) - and these two notes end up being inversions of each other if you invert around C or Gb.
Basically, any time you invert around the second scale degree of a major key, you get this same property: diatonic notes remain diatonic, and closely related non-diatonic notes remain closely related, but on the other side, as it were. The second degree works because because a major scale is symmetric around that note. And that's the real reason why D works as the mirror point in the site you referenced: it's the second scale degree of C, and of course the physical layout of the piano is designed around that key. Had the piano been designed so that the white keys formed a Bb major scale, he'd have written that same article but with C as the mirror point.
BTW, the circle of fifths can apply to all sorts of things - keys, key signatures, chords, individual notes, etc. It has lots of applications. The specific one being discussed had to do with keys, yes. But of course, keys consist of notes, and notes can form chords, so it's all related.
In reply to Again, the particular way the by Marc Sabatella
Oh dear. I'm sorry I don't know how to use the right terms to explain what I mean. I don't think we're talking about the same thing.
What I mean is, if you compose a melody (just a line of single notes) you will instinctively sense what the chords are. Will the instinctive chords for that melody always be swapped to a key that clashes with the prime when you invert the melody? That's what I am trying to ask.
Did I say it right this time?
In reply to Oh dear. I'm sorry I don't by Resopmoc
Sorry if my answer wasn't clear. I understood your question well enough the first time, but the answer I gave was perhaps more complicated than you wanted.
The short answer is, the melody - and with it, the implied chords - will remain in the same key as the original *if* you do a diatonic inversion, or if you do an exact inversion around whatever note is the second scale degree (eg, C in the key of Bb). If you perform an exact inversion around any other note, then it will shift to a different key.
You said every time you do a direct inversion then it will shift to "a different key" - yes, exactly. But which? That's the whole point.
Is there a rule governing it?
Either I'm still wording the question properly, or you're not understanding it because you don't think it's important, but I do. I want to understand.
If I invert a prime melody as an exact reflection and do not alter the reflected notes, will the key it shifts to always be determined by the rule stated by that person on their website?
Every time I compose a prime in D, will its inversion always end up in Bb? Every time my prime is in Eb, will the inversion always be in A? etc etc Are these rules impossible to modify? Is that just the way they are? like the laws of gravity in nature? Or will they differ from person to person depending on their compositions?
Thank you
Posercom xx
In reply to Still not clear. by Resopmoc
Yes, there is a rule governing what keys end up getting implied if yinertiaert non-diatonic notes around, but that's part of what I was describing previously that may have seemed unnecessarily complicated. No, it is not as simple as what you just said. Please read my responses again. It is not a case of every time you invert a prime in Eb you get one in A. That's only true for the specific case he was discussing - the case where the piece as a whole is in C and you happen to choose to nevertheless around D and then temporarily modulate to Eb. If you do that, and keep inverting around D, then yes, that particular portion of your piece - which otherwise remains in C - will move to A. What I was explaining is that if you want a general rule, don't always invert around D, but instead, invert around the second scale degree of the key your piece is actually in. It is complicated, so if you wish to understand this, you have to start thinking in terms of scale degree and temporary modulations, beause the answer does not have to do with absolutes like Eb always becomes A.
Assuming you do invert around the second scale degree, then anything that started in that key remains in that key when inverted. And if you temporarily modulate to a different key, what happens is that a key "n" degrees flatter than the original on the circle of fifths maps to a key "n" degrees shapers, and vice versa. Using the example I already gave, use of E while otherwise in Bb suggests the key of F - one degree sharper than Bb. The E maps to Ab, which suggests the key of Eb - one degree flatter. Two degrees sharper than Bb is C, which comes from also adding a B. The B maps to Db, which implies the key of Ab - two degrees flatter. I haven't worked it through the rest of the way, but I see no reason to doubt the results shown In the web site you reference, which demonstrate it working that way I the specific case of inverting around D, the second scale degree of C.
How important this is depends if you plan to write music this way. I can assure you this is *not* something very often (if ever) done, so it isnl't important in general to an understanding of music and how to compose music that sounds good to the average listener or is readable to the average musician (those are important skills for *all*). That's what I meant when I called it an "idle curiosity" before - the vast majority of musicians would never care to think about this. It wasn't clear if you understood this. But if it helps you create music unlike what others have done, then indeed, it's important to you specifically.
Thank you for trying to explain it to me so patiently but I still don't really understand your explanations because you are assuming that what I am talking about can't (or won't) be done so you are not taking the question literally and instead seem to be assuming that the reflections won't be used the exact way they are, but they will.
It is important to me, and no, I am not the first person to want to write music this way. I have checked and found out that Mozart and Bach (and probably some other people I haven't read about yet) could see the same principle and wrote things using reflections. Apparently crab canons, mirror canons, and"Table Music" in general all used reflections.To someone who has a grasp of mathematics as well as music, it is not "idle curiosity." It's about finding out how key signatures are affected when you have two axis of symmetry (vertical and horizontal), not just a horizontal one. The normal VISUAL rules of reflective symmetry apply, in terms of shape (rhythm of the notes) but not in terms of key signature. i.e. the pattern of the notes will LOOK perfectly symmetrical when your eyes see it on the page, but the result will not SOUND perfectly symmetrical in terms of key signatures when played, because music is not just a silent diagram on a page. It has sound, and the rules of sound symmetry don't seem to be the same as the rules of visual symmetry. I'm just trying to find out what the rule is for key signature reflective symmetry. There seem to be very few musicians out there who are also mathematicians, and mathematicians who are also musicians. Hence why people aren't writing about it. I suppose I will just have to find out the rules by observation, as I go along.
Thank you for all of your time spent trying to help me. :)
In reply to Thank you for trying to by Resopmoc
I am not assuming anything, and for the record, I have a degree in mathematics, so I understand perfeclty what you have been asking. It's just the answer is not as simple as you want it to be. I am sorry you are having trouble understanding my explanations, but I *am* answering your questions quite literally, but I will try to do so again.
*If* you invert around D or Ab (which are the specific notes chosen by the author of that web site), then yes, the key of Eb turns into the key of A, each and every time. Try it yourself and you'll see; you shouldn't need me to explain that much. If you limit yourself to inversion around D or Ab, then everything that author wrote is always true, just as you can see for yourself very easily by working it through what each note of an Eb major scale maps into when inverted around D or Ab and seeing what set of notes you end up with. You'll find that if you start with the notes of Eb major, you end up with the notes of A major. Eb becomes C#, F becomes B, G becomes A, Ab because G#, Bb becomes F#, C becomes E, D becomes B. The original Eb major scales has now turned into the A scale, and there is no way to make that not be true. That much is quite simple.
What I am trying to explain is the "general rule" you are asking about - what happens if you invert around notes *other* than D or Ab. In other words, what happens if you perform inversions the way they are normally done, which is *not* always around D or Ab, but around other notes chosen by the composer. Certainly Bach, Mozart, and other composers performed inversions - but they did *not* limit themselves to inversions around D and Ab. As I keep saying, *if* you choose to limit yourself to inversion around D or Ab, then yes, Eb maps onto A, and you can stop asking about general rules because you aren't dealing with the general case - only the specific case of inversions around D and Ab.
But if you invert around some note other than D - as the composers you mention all did - then Eb will map onto something other than A. So if there is a "general rule", then it needs to be able to predict what Eb will map onto given the point of inversion. Whether or not you plan to ever invert around notes other than D or Ab, a *general rule* needs to handle cases other than those two. And there can be no denying: neither Bach nor Mozart nor anyone else would normally limit themselves to inversions around D and Ab. Yes, inversions are common, but no , inversions that limit themselves to inversions around those two axes are *not*.
And as it turns out, there *is* a general rule that allows you to predict what key Eb will map on from any given axis of inversion. This is precisely the rule I have already tried to explain. I'm sorry, but it just can't be easily summarized in one sentence. That's what you will have to read and work through what i wrote above if you wish to understand. But I gave you the literal answer the your question - the general rule that allows to predict with perfect reliability what key any given key will map into - *generally*, which is to say, given any point of inversion.
If you *always* use D as your point of inversion,l the Eb will always map onto A. On the other hand, if you want the key of Eb to remain Eb (as it appears is your goal), then you need to invert around the second scale degree of Eb, which is F - just as the general rule I have already explained predicts. If you invert around F, then the key of Eb will *always* remain the key of Eb. The rule works: exact inversion around the second scale degree preserves the diatonicity of any melody.
For some other examples, if you invert around G, then the key Eb maps to the key G (for the reasons i previously explained). If you invert you invert around Bb, then the key of Eb maps to the key of Db. If you invert around C, then the key of Eb maps to the key of F. The rule that explains this is as I explained in my previous posts. It's not a simple rule, but if you understand it, you can apply it.
As for the importance of this, I didn't you were the *only* one concerned with this. Just that it isn't at all common - and the people you mention did not actually use inversions in this way very often. Mostly, they used inversions in much more ordinary ways that don't require these sort of calculations (eg, using diatonic as opposed to exact inversion). But in any case, you asked previously why there aren't other web sites explaining this. And like it or not, the reason is as I already suggested: there aren't many other web sites explaining it because most people don't consider it important. So I did *literally* answer your question.
Now, the *reason* most people don't consider this topic important is another matter. I would guess that a) only a fairly small number of people perform inversions, and b) most of the ones who do perform inversions are either doing diatonic inversions - in which case none of this applies - or else they are doing exact inversions but are writing atonal music, in which case - again - none of this applies. The set of people performing exact (as opposed to diatonic) inversions in tonal music is just tiny. Again, that doesn't mean it isn't important to those people, but the fact that it is such a small set explains why most would consider it not important, which in turn explains why you won't find many web sites on the topic.
Thank you very much, Marc, for attempting to explain it all to me again. Sadly, I still don't understand your explanations. I think it's because you are much cleverer than I am. I have got a brain development disorder.
I never said anything about inverting always and only from D or Eb. I was using them merely as two examples from the chart, to avoid listing them all. So I'm even more confused, and have even less idea what you're talking about now!
I think we should just leave it now, but thank you very, very much for spending so much time trying to help me. I appreciate the effort, and it's not your fault I'm not as clever as you are. :)
Of course, if you go counter-clockwise you are ascending in fourths, not fifths and that isn't symmetrical is it?
It is said that classical music is all related to fifths and jazz to fourths but can you really state that jazz is the opposite or the mirror or the inversion of classical?
I submit that the "symmetry" is a happy (?) co-incidence whereby intervals - other than octaves - that sound harmonious just so happen to lend themselves to being placed in a circle thus and then one sees that one flat is opposite one sharp. A trick, by the way, that only works with Western music and only with equal-tempered scales.
The bottom line is we see patterns everywhere and I think that we sometimes read too much into them. By all mean analyse and theorize on this as much as you want but there would not appear to be an actual rule with respect to this,
The great composers of yore obviously were aware of inversions and used them to good effect in their compositions. I am, as always, in awe of them and wonder what more they could have achieved had they access to modern technology such as synthesizers and computers. But then again, why has no-one done better than JSB, Teleman, Paganini etc. with modern tools?. Could it be that it's the sound of the finished piece rather than the mathematics that lead to a pleasing result?