Melody in voice 1, or 2?

• Mar 12, 2021 - 15:51

Which one is correct, and why, please?
Voices.png
For me, it seems to be more readable second one.

In source (old score) is first one. Probably, logic is, that melody is more important, so it was in voice 1.

Are there rules in "bibles", which says, which one is correct?

Thanks


Comments

Is this is for e.g. Soprano and Alto, and the Alto is suppose to sing the higher notes, the 1st variant is more correct one. Or for something like Horn 1 and 2, with Horn 2 playing the higher notes.

Well, it's not much of a melody.

Without more context it is difficult to see why it is not written as snip1.png

If this is the upper stave of a piano part it might be trying to indicate that the lower Ds are played with the right hand and the upper ones are played with the left hand (i.e. cross handed). But that would really only make sense if it was part of a passage where there are two voices that cross. Something like this perhaps:

snip2.png

The golden rule is "make it clear". I find the "interlocked" version easier to read as the stems fill the spaces where the "implied" rests would go. Whereas with the other version I do a double take to confirm there are the correct number of beats. But the simple four groups beamed together (my first example) is the easiest of all to read and unless you are trying to indicate two different voices I would go for that one. If there are two voices that you need to indicate, then the choice of interlocked or not interlocked would would depend on which hand is playing which voice (assuming this is a piano part)>

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